Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 26.06.2025 07:53
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's your take on Eternal Sunshine of the Spotless Mind? How has it affected you?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If Jesus was crucified by Governor Pontius Pilate, why does the Quran deny his death?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Ray Dalio: ‘We should be afraid of the bond market’ - CNN
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.